If a_ n = ( _ e 3 )^ n _ k=0 ^ n 1 k!(n-k)! , for n ≥ 0 then a_ n +a_ 1 +a_ 2 + =

Mathematics · JEE Main · NTA ExamsBinomial Theorem And Its Simple Applications

If  \(a_{n}=\left(\log _{e} 3\right)^{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{1}{k!(n-k)!}\), for n ≥ 0 then \(a_{n}+a_{1}+a_{2}+\ldots \infty\) =
  1. 2n
  2. 9
  3. \(\frac{z^{n}}{\{n-1\}!}\)
  4. None of these

Answer

(D) None of these

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